The Greek word for head is kephale. Its meaning as a metaphor is a hotly disputed issue in biblical scholarship. One metaphorical use of "head" in Hebrew, Latin, and English is the idea of ruler. (ex. "head of state) Yet "head" does not appear to carry this same connotation in Greek. Gordon Fee writes:
The clearest evidence for the real differences between the Jewish and Greek metaphorical uses is to be found in the Septuagint (LXX). In the hundreds of places where the Hebrew rosh is used for the literal head on a body, the translators invariably used the only word in Greek that means the same thing, kephale. But in the approximately 180 times it appears as a metaphor for the leader or chieftain, they almost always [six exceptions] eliminate the metaphor altogether and translate it arche (“leader”), which is evidence that they were uncomfortable with (unfamiliar with?) the Jewish metaphor and simply translated it out. ("Praying and Prophesying in the Assemblies: 1 Corinthians 11:2-16," Chapter 8 in Discovering Biblical Equality: Complementarity Without Hierarchy. (Downer's Grove, IL: IVP, 150, fn 28)
Recently I was reading about the "head of the synagogue" in first century Judaism. The Hebrew title is rosh ha-keneset or "head" (rosh) "of the assembly" (ha-keneset ). Now if kephale carried the same metaphorical meaning in Greek, then we would expect to find a title that combined kephale and synagoge (the gathering). Correct? But instead we find archisynagogos, or "leader/ruler" (Arche) of "the assembly" (synagogos).
Why didn't they use "head" in Greek? Because kephale does not carry the connotation of ruler in Greek.
Gidday again Michael,
I have spent some time researching kephale. The two most common meanings (esp in 1 cor 11:3 for example)discussed are 'source/origin' or 'authority'. However, Andrew Perriman (Speaking of Women Interpreting Paul: Apollow, 1998) along with Thiselton (1 Corinthians, NIGTC: Eerdmans, 2000) proposes the more 'simple' (common in Gk) meaning of 'prominence' or 'synechdoch'... that is, the 'head' was simply the most obvious/ prominent part of the body, and so was used as a representative of the rest of the body. I was wondering if you have comments / studied up on this third meaning at all?
regards
Kerryn
Posted by: kerryn | May 07, 2007 at 07:25 AM
I intend to do posts in the Household series that deal with "head" as a metaphor. My short answer is that I don't think we can understand "head" with mathematical precision. It has mulitple nuances depending on context.
There is no doubt in my mind that "head" in Greek is frequently used to indicate "origin/source." It can symbolize that from which life springs. It can also symoblize first in sequence as in, "She got there early and was at the 'head' of the line." Thiselton suggests "prominence." That seems accurate as well. We often talk about "heads of cattle" today knowing the "head" is symoblic of the whole beast in unity. What we do not find is head being used to indicate ruler or leader. It may be used of a ruler/leader but it symbolizes some trait they have other than their leading and ruling.
I am convinced that "head" in 1 Cor. 11:3 is about origins. Honor and shame were the controlling forces in the ancient Near East. Your identity was well defined. You were the member of a family, that was a member of clan, that was a member of a tribe, that was a member of a people. Giving honor and recognition to your origins was the way you demonstrated solidarity with your family grouping. In this 1 Cor. passage, Paul makes clear that man has one origin, Christ as creator (Christ is the head of everyman...). But woman has two heads/origins because, as one created in the image of God, she originates in God but she was taken from the side of man and also has origin in man (...and the husband is the head of every wife...). The passage is about how to show the proper decorum that brings honor and avoids shame for all involved. The final pairing is "God is the head of Christ," about which Paul says nothing more. It is believed that this might have been a creedal statement teaching that Adam was created, Eve was created, and in Christ we have the new Adam. Since we are all made new in Christ the whole thing comes full circle.
Posted by: Michael Kruse | May 07, 2007 at 03:50 PM
Michael,
I fully agree.
thanks
Kerryn
Posted by: kerryn | May 07, 2007 at 06:45 PM
Hichael, there are a lot of interesting issues wrapped up with the question of kephale especially as we know that Aristotle and perhaps most Greeks believed that the heart/liver kardia and organs in the abdomen were of greater importance than the head as being the seat of the soul, emotions etc. i think these views dominated at least till Galen who postdates our NT period.
Posted by: Sam Carr | May 08, 2007 at 06:32 AM
Sorry, Michael, I'm a very lazy proofer. And congrats on the very interesting discussion on at jesuscreed!
Posted by: Sam Carr | May 08, 2007 at 06:33 AM
Michael,
Very interesting article and some great insights. In addition to Kerryn's points, there is a very expensive book called the "Body in Question" by Gregory Dawes that handles primarily Epheshians but deals extensively with the metaphorical uses of kephale. He is quoted extensivly in Thisleton.
Rusty
Posted by: Rusty Bullerman | May 08, 2007 at 07:11 AM
Sam, Rev 2:23:
"And all the churches will know that I am the one who searches minds and hearts …”
NRSV
The Greek is nefrous kai kardias which literally is “kidneys and hearts.” The evidence is in the Bible itself.
And don't worry about proofing. I don't proof my posts! :)
Posted by: Michael Kruse | May 08, 2007 at 07:42 AM
Rusty, thanks for the heads up on the Dawes book. I have read an article or two by Thisleton but I have never got around to investigating his sources.
Posted by: Michael Kruse | May 08, 2007 at 07:52 AM